Ø Acts 12:4
> And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered
> him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after
> Easter to bring him forth to the people. <<<

True, this was an attempt at "thought for thought" translation,
something that the KJV translators rarely did. They usually tried to
stay closer to a "word for word" translation. In this case, they
substituted  Easter for Passover, because they thought more  people
would be familiar with it. Another example of KJV "though for thought"
translation is the use of  the word "candle" when a small oil lamp was
being referred to. See Matthew 5:15 as one of many examples. In truth,
candles as the translators knew them were not in use in Jesus' day.

Other more serious problems with  the KJV include:
1) Use of inferior manuscripts. Older, more reliable, manuscripts have
been discovered that were not available to KJV translators. For the
most part, these are minor discrepencies.

2) Limited knowledge of the original languages. Dead languages are
learned by comparing old manuscripts in that language. As more
manuscripts are discovered, the knowledge of how that language works
improves. There are some examples in the KJV that  demonstrate a
misunderstanding of how the original language works. Again, these are
mainly minor discrepencies.

3) Political influence. Remember, the same King James who authorized
this version is the man who supported "the divine right of kings," the
political doctrine that kings were above the rule of law because they
were appointed by God. It is ironic that many KJV only  supporters
today idolize the Separatists who wouldn't have anything to do with
the KJV. James authorized the KJV at least in part to control
religious separatists and their English translation, The Geneva Bible.
This caused some more subtle, but more serious problems.

4) Dated language. This is probably the biggest problem for the KJV
today. The English language has changed. In some situations, words
mean something totally different than what they do today.

In short, the KJV served a great purpose, but it has problems, just as
any  translation does. To say that the KJV (or any translation) is the
only accurate English translation is truly ignorant.

  As you probably already know,Jim,I have been refuting KJVOnlyism &
other false doctrines & "churches" for years,long before the
internet came to be. I have asked the Onlyists these simple little
questions for which I've NEVER received a straight answer & never
will, because the CORRECT answers shoot the Onlyism myth right in
the head. The questions:

1. All doctrines ABOUT Scripture MUST BE SUPPORTED by Scripture,as
Scripture is the highest written authority we have, & nothing LESS
than Scripture can DEFINE Scripture. Where is the Scripture
supporting the doctrine of KJVOnlyism?

2. The Onlyist claims the KJV is perfect. WHICH EDITION???? The
commonly-used 1769 Blayney's Edition is a FAR CRY from the original
AV1611! I have both the Blayney's & a replica AV1611, so I know from
whence I speak! Also,there are AT LEAST FOUR other major revisions!
Only ONE can be PERFECT! Which one,and why?

3. The Onlyist insists that Psalm 12:6-7 is in reference to God's
words. If that's so,then please answer these: In English,God's words
have appeared before in 1611 in at least ten major versions:

Caedmon's translation(C.995 AD)
Wycliffe's Bible(1382)
William Tyndale's Bible
Coverdale's Bible
Matthew's Bible
Taverner's Bible
The Great Bible
The Geneva Bible
The Bishops' Bible
The Rheims-Douai Bible

  NOT ONE of these editions matches any other, after eliminating the
differences in the vernaculars of the times in which each was
written. Now,either God has preserved His word "unto all
generations" as  you say He said-but in the ways HE chose-or you're
wrong. Which is it?  And where is there any Scripture saying God
would close the further translating of His word after 1611?

4. The Onlyist insists the KJV is perfect. Where, then, is the
authority of adding the words, "the image of" to Romans 11:4 when
these words are NOT found in this passage in any known ancient  MSS
of the Book of Romans?

5. How does the Onlyist who insists the KJV is the only perfect
Bible explain the fact that the Textus Receptus( the compilation of
the Greek mss from which the KJV NT was translated), the mss from
which the Textus receptus was made, and the KJV itself, all differ
among themselves,with no one of the writings named above matching
any of the others?

  These are just the basics of the MOUNTAIN of evidence showing
KJVOnlyism is a false doctrine. I earlier posted its man-made
origins. KJVO is just another of those "isms" from the devil that
seek to keep us from God's truths. Why does the devil do this? He's
using GUILE where BRUTE FORCE, such as that of the Romans or the
Inquisitions failed. The devil knows he cannot take anyone's
salvation. But he knows that he may keep someone from salvation by
interfering with the believers' effective witnessing. Imagine what
harm could occur when an Onlyist tells someone seeking Christ by
reading an NIV that "You don't got no Bible". Also, such "isms" as
KJVOism & "regenerational baptism" are used by the devil to divide
the Body of Christ,His Church.

  In summary,if your fave BV is the KJV, Hallelujah! The KJV is a
perfectly valid BV! But,don't believe it's the ONLY valid English
BV, nor look down upon anyone using another version(s). And be sure
to follow the HOLY SPIRIT'S guidance in choosing ANY Bible version!